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Ajay, Amar, Bilal, Cathie, Chloe, Rohan and Raman are seven people living on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them owns a different brand of car i.e. Honda, Hyundai, Kia, Maruti, BMW, Audi and Mercedes (but not necessarily in the same order).
Ajay lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor 3. The one who has Kia lives immediately above Ajay. Only two people live between Ajay and person driving Mercedes who lives below Ajay. Bilal lives on odd numbered floor below 7. The Person driving Hyundai lives on floor number 1. The person who drives BMW does not live on the top floor. Chloe drives Kia. Three people live between the person who drives Honda and the person who drives BMW. Ajay does not drive Maruti. There is a gap of two floors between Amar and the person who drives Kia. Cathie does not live on even numbered floor. Rohan drives Maruti.
Answer the Following Questions:
1. Who lives on the topmost floor?
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Ajay, Amar, Bilal, Cathie, Chloe, Rohan and Raman are seven people living on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them owns a different brand of car i.e. Honda, Hyundai, Kia, Maruti, BMW, Audi and Mercedes (but not necessarily in the same order).
Ajay lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor 3. The one who has Kia lives immediately above Ajay. Only two people live between Ajay and person driving Mercedes who lives below Ajay. Bilal lives on odd numbered floor below 7. The Person driving Hyundai lives on floor number 1. The person who drives BMW does not live on the top floor. Chloe drives Kia. Three people live between the person who drives Honda and the person who drives BMW. Ajay does not drive Maruti. There is a gap of two floors between Amar and the person who drives Kia. Cathie does not live on even numbered floor. Rohan drives Maruti.
2. Three out of the four follow a certain pattern. Find out the odd one.
Raman lives on even numbered floor.
Hence the correct option is b
Raman lives on even numbered floor.
Hence the correct option is b
Raman lives on even numbered floor.
Hence the correct option is b
Ajay, Amar, Bilal, Cathie, Chloe, Rohan and Raman are seven people living on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them owns a different brand of car i.e. Honda, Hyundai, Kia, Maruti, BMW, Audi and Mercedes (but not necessarily in the same order).
Ajay lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor 3. The one who has Kia lives immediately above Ajay. Only two people live between Ajay and person driving Mercedes who lives below Ajay. Bilal lives on odd numbered floor below 7. The Person driving Hyundai lives on floor number 1. The person who drives BMW does not live on the top floor. Chloe drives Kia. Three people live between the person who drives Honda and the person who drives BMW. Ajay does not drive Maruti. There is a gap of two floors between Amar and the person who drives Kia. Cathie does not live on even numbered floor. Rohan drives Maruti.
3. Who among the following drives a BMW?
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Ajay, Amar, Bilal, Cathie, Chloe, Rohan and Raman are seven people living on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them owns a different brand of car i.e. Honda, Hyundai, Kia, Maruti, BMW, Audi and Mercedes (but not necessarily in the same order).
Ajay lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor 3. The one who has Kia lives immediately above Ajay. Only two people live between Ajay and person driving Mercedes who lives below Ajay. Bilal lives on odd numbered floor below 7. The Person driving Hyundai lives on floor number 1. The person who drives BMW does not live on the top floor. Chloe drives Kia. Three people live between the person who drives Honda and the person who drives BMW. Ajay does not drive Maruti. There is a gap of two floors between Amar and the person who drives Kia. Cathie does not live on even numbered floor. Rohan drives Maruti.
4. Who among the following lives immediately above the person driving Maruti?
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Ajay, Amar, Bilal, Cathie, Chloe, Rohan and Raman are seven people living on seven different floors of a building but not necessarily in the same order. The lowermost floor of the building is numbered 1, the one above that is numbered 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 7. Each one of them owns a different brand of car i.e. Honda, Hyundai, Kia, Maruti, BMW, Audi and Mercedes (but not necessarily in the same order).
Ajay lives on an odd numbered floor but not on floor 3. The one who has Kia lives immediately above Ajay. Only two people live between Ajay and person driving Mercedes who lives below Ajay. Bilal lives on odd numbered floor below 7. The Person driving Hyundai lives on floor number 1. The person who drives BMW does not live on the top floor. Chloe drives Kia. Three people live between the person who drives Honda and the person who drives BMW. Ajay does not drive Maruti. There is a gap of two floors between Amar and the person who drives Kia. Cathie does not live on even numbered floor. Rohan drives Maruti.
5. Who among the following lives on Second floor?
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Statements
All rounds are circles
Some circles are triangles
All triangles are blue
Conclusions:
I) Some blue are rounds
II) Some blue are circles
III) Some triangles are rounds
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Statements
All dogs are pets
Some pets are rats
All rats are bats
Conclusions:
I) Some bats are pets
II)Some bats are dogs
III) Some rats are pets
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Statements:
All lions are dogs
Some dogs are rats
No rat is lizard
Some lizards are birds
Conclusions:
I) Some birds are dogs
II) Some lizards are lions
III) No bird is dog
IV)Some rats are lions
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
If the first and second letters in the word TRANSPORTATION are interchanged and also the third and fourth letter and the fifth and sixth letter and so on, then which letter would be the fifth from the right?
The interchanged word would be like RTNAPSROATITNO. The fifth letter from the right is T.
The interchanged word would be like RTNAPSROATITNO. The fifth letter from the right is T.
The interchanged word would be like RTNAPSROATITNO. The fifth letter from the right is T.
In the word INTELLIGENCE, the letters at odd places are changed by the next letter in the alphabet series and the letters at even places are changed by the previous letter in the alphabet series. Then which word will be seventh from the right in the newly formed word?
The letter at the seventh place is L from the right. As it is in the even place from the left(6th from the left, series starting from I) it will be changed by next letter i.e. K
Hence the correct option is d
The letter at the seventh place is L from the right. As it is in the even place from the left(6th from the left, series starting from I) it will be changed by next letter i.e. K
Hence the correct option is d
The letter at the seventh place is L from the right. As it is in the even place from the left(6th from the left, series starting from I) it will be changed by next letter i.e. K
Hence the correct option is d
In a certain code language,
‘shallow air civilized’ is coded as ‘pt ho bg’
‘shallow break rude’ is coded as ‘ab uv bg’
‘rude smell air’ is coded as ‘uv jk ho‘’
‘smell cold air’ is coded as ‘zx ho jk’
11. Which among the following is coded as ‘pt’?
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
In a certain code language,
‘shallow air civilized’ is coded as ‘pt ho bg’
‘shallow break rude’ is coded as ‘ab uv bg’
‘rude smell air’ is coded as ‘uv jk ho‘’
‘smell cold air’ is coded as ‘zx ho jk’
12. Which among the following is coded as ‘uv bg’?
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
In a certain code language,
‘shallow air civilized’ is coded as ‘pt ho bg’
‘shallow break rude’ is coded as ‘ab uv bg’
‘rude smell air’ is coded as ‘uv jk ho‘’
‘smell cold air’ is coded as ‘zx ho jk’
13. Which of the following words is coded as ‘ho jk’?
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are seven members in a family of three generation in which three are married couples. B who is sister in law of E is married to A. D has only one son. C is father in law of G.F is child of A. G is not a female member.
If K is married to F, then how K is related to B?
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are seven members in a family of three generation in which three are married couples. B who is sister in law of E is married to A. D has only one son. C is father in law of G.F is child of A. G is not a female member.
15. What is the relationship of C with respect to G?
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are seven members in a family of three generation in which three are married couples. B who is sister in law of E is married to A. D has only one son. C is father in law of G.F is child of A. G is not a female member.
16. How G is related to A?
Hence the correct option is c
A person starts walking from point A and walked 8m towards south direction and after reaching at point B he takes a right turn and reached at point C after walking 10m. From there he takes a right turn and walks 6m to reach at point D and again he takes a right turn and walks 5m to reach at point E. From there he takes a final turn and reach at point F. Point A is to the east of point F.
What is the shortest distance between point A and point F?
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
What is the shortest distance between point A and point E?
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
If FROG is written as DVMK, then in the same language GOAT will be written as?
The sequence is -2 +4 -2 +4. So the correct answer is (b)
The sequence is -2 +4 -2 +4. So the correct answer is (b)
The sequence is -2 +4 -2 +4. So the correct answer is (b)
What will come in place of question mark in the following series? DCXW, FEVU, HGTS, ?
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
In a certain code ‘FEAR’ is written as ‘ + × ÷ * ’ and ‘READ’ is written as ‘*× ÷ $’. How is ‘FADE’ written in that code?
a is the right answer.
a is the right answer.
a is the right answer.
In a certain code, ‘253’ means ‘books are old’; ‘546’ means ‘man is old’ and ‘378’ means ‘buy good books’. What stands for “are” in that code?
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Select the best alternative from the given words
Bank : River :: Coast : ?
Bank is the land beside a river. Similarly, coast is the land beside a sea.
Hence the correct option is a
Bank is the land beside a river. Similarly, coast is the land beside a sea.
Hence the correct option is a
Bank is the land beside a river. Similarly, coast is the land beside a sea.
Hence the correct option is a
APPROACHED: ROACHEDAPP:: BARGAINED:?
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
If ‘football’ is called ‘cricket’, ‘cricket’ is called ‘basketball’, ‘basketball’ is called ‘badminton’, ‘badminton’ is called ‘volleyball’ and ‘volleyball is called ‘hockey’, then which of the following is not played with ball?
As badminton is called volleyball, so c is the answer.
As badminton is called volleyball, so c is the answer.
As badminton is called volleyball, so c is the answer.
At least in how many of the given years did all of sales, expenses and profit increase or decrease in unison?
In the years 2014, 2015 and 2018, the sales, expenses and profits of the company increased or decreased in unison.
Hence the correct option is b
In the years 2014, 2015 and 2018, the sales, expenses and profits of the company increased or decreased in unison.
Hence the correct option is b
In the years 2014, 2015 and 2018, the sales, expenses and profits of the company increased or decreased in unison.
Hence the correct option is b
At least in how many of the given years did the profits of ABC Corporation increase, when compared to the previous year?
In the years 2014, 2015, 2017 and 2018, the sales, expenses and profits of the company increased or decreased in unison.
Hence the correct option is d
In the years 2014, 2015, 2017 and 2018, the sales, expenses and profits of the company increased or decreased in unison.
Hence the correct option is d
In the years 2014, 2015, 2017 and 2018, the sales, expenses and profits of the company increased or decreased in unison.
Hence the correct option is d
If profitability in the year 2015 was 50%, then what was the profitability in the year 2017?
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
In which of the following years did ABC Corporation make the highest profit?
Even for the minimum possible value i.e. when x = 1.5y, we can see that the profit is the highest in the year 2018. For any higher value of sales also the profit is going to be the highest in 2018.
Hence the correct option is c
Even for the minimum possible value i.e. when x = 1.5y, we can see that the profit is the highest in the year 2018. For any higher value of sales also the profit is going to be the highest in 2018.
Hence the correct option is c
Even for the minimum possible value i.e. when x = 1.5y, we can see that the profit is the highest in the year 2018. For any higher value of sales also the profit is going to be the highest in 2018.
Hence the correct option is c
The Monthly expenditure of Manyata on Rent is how much more of less than the monthly savings?
The monthly savings is 72000/12=6000 and the total monthly income= 1,80,000/12=15000.
Monthly rent= 20% of 15000= 3000
Hence the correct option is c
Required difference= 6000-3000=3000
The monthly savings is 72000/12=6000 and the total monthly income= 1,80,000/12=15000.
Monthly rent= 20% of 15000= 3000
Hence the correct option is c
Required difference= 6000-3000=3000
The monthly savings is 72000/12=6000 and the total monthly income= 1,80,000/12=15000.
Monthly rent= 20% of 15000= 3000
Hence the correct option is c
Required difference= 6000-3000=3000
Sartaj, a colleague of Manyata, has annual income which is 150% of the total annual expenditure on rent and electricity of Manyata. What is his monthly income?
Total income of Manyata= 1,80,000. Total expenditure on rent and electricity= 35% of 1,80,000= 63000.
Total monthly income of Sartaj= 150*63000/100= 94500/12= 7875
Hence the correct option is d
Total income of Manyata= 1,80,000. Total expenditure on rent and electricity= 35% of 1,80,000= 63000.
Total monthly income of Sartaj= 150*63000/100= 94500/12= 7875
Hence the correct option is d
Total income of Manyata= 1,80,000. Total expenditure on rent and electricity= 35% of 1,80,000= 63000.
Total monthly income of Sartaj= 150*63000/100= 94500/12= 7875
Hence the correct option is d
Manyata’s saving is what percentage of her expenditure on education?
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
What is the difference between the total annual expenditure and the annual expenditure on education?
Total annual expenditure= 1,80,000-72000= 108000
Total expenditure on education= 25% of 1,80,000= 45000
Required difference = 1,08,000-45000= 63000
Hence the correct option is d
Total annual expenditure= 1,80,000-72000= 108000
Total expenditure on education= 25% of 1,80,000= 45000
Required difference = 1,08,000-45000= 63000
Hence the correct option is d
Total annual expenditure= 1,80,000-72000= 108000
Total expenditure on education= 25% of 1,80,000= 45000
Required difference = 1,08,000-45000= 63000
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
A tutor tabulated the marks secured by 35 students. The average of their marks was 72. If the marks secured by Alex was written as 36 instead of 86 then find the correct average marks upto two decimal places.
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
A garrison of 3300 men had provision for 32 days, when given at the rate of 850 gm per head. At the end of 7 days, a reinforcement arrived and it was found that the provision would last 17 days more, when given at the rate of 825 gm per head. What was the strength of the reinforcement?
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Hence the correct option is b
Three persons A, B, C rent the grazing of a park for Rs. 570. A puts in 126 oxen in the park for 3 months, B puts in 162 oxen for 5 months and C puts in 216 oxen for 4 months. What part of the rent should each C pay?
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
Hence the correct option is c
A positive number is divided by 20 instead of being multiplied by 20. How much percent is the incorrect result of the required correct value?
Let the number be 100, then the correct answer= 2000
The incorrect answer that was obtained = 100/20=5
The required %= 5/2000*100= 0.25%
Hence the correct option is b
Let the number be 100, then the correct answer= 2000
The incorrect answer that was obtained = 100/20=5
The required %= 5/2000*100= 0.25%
Hence the correct option is b
Let the number be 100, then the correct answer= 2000
The incorrect answer that was obtained = 100/20=5
The required %= 5/2000*100= 0.25%
Hence the correct option is b
The salary of a worker is first increased by 5% and then it is decreased by 5%. What is the percentage change in his salary?
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
Hence the correct option is d
In how many ways a hockey team of eleven can be elected from 16 players?
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
Hence the correct option is a
The Indian MOOC (Massive Open Online Courses) initiative is also known as:
Explanation
SWAYAM (meaning ‘Self’) is a Sanskrit acronym that stands for “Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds” is an Indian Massive open online course (MOOC) platform. SWAYAM is an initiative launched by the then Ministry of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.)
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
SWAYAM (meaning ‘Self’) is a Sanskrit acronym that stands for “Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds” is an Indian Massive open online course (MOOC) platform. SWAYAM is an initiative launched by the then Ministry of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.)
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
SWAYAM (meaning ‘Self’) is a Sanskrit acronym that stands for “Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds” is an Indian Massive open online course (MOOC) platform. SWAYAM is an initiative launched by the then Ministry of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.)
Thus, option D is correct.
Which Arab state has started first nuclear power plant?
Explanation
UAE starts up Arab world’s first nuclear plant. The United Arab Emirates has launched operations at the Arab world’s first nuclear power plant, on the Gulf coast just east of Qatar.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
UAE starts up Arab world’s first nuclear plant. The United Arab Emirates has launched operations at the Arab world’s first nuclear power plant, on the Gulf coast just east of Qatar.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
UAE starts up Arab world’s first nuclear plant. The United Arab Emirates has launched operations at the Arab world’s first nuclear power plant, on the Gulf coast just east of Qatar.
Thus, option C is correct.
The breath test conducted by police to check drunken driver has which one of the following on the filter paper?
Explanation
A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken driving uses Potassium dichromatic-sulphuric acid.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken driving uses Potassium dichromatic-sulphuric acid.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
A ‘breath test’ used by traffic police to check drunken driving uses Potassium dichromatic-sulphuric acid.
Thus, option D is correct.
Who has won the Women’s Singles US Open Tennis Tournament, 2021?
Explanation
Emma Raducanu defeated Leylah Fernandez in the final, 6–4, 6–3 to win the women’s singles tennis title at the 2021 US Open. She became the first qualifier, male or female, to reach a major final and win a major title, as well as the first singles qualifier to reach the semifinals at the US Open.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
Emma Raducanu defeated Leylah Fernandez in the final, 6–4, 6–3 to win the women’s singles tennis title at the 2021 US Open. She became the first qualifier, male or female, to reach a major final and win a major title, as well as the first singles qualifier to reach the semifinals at the US Open.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
Emma Raducanu defeated Leylah Fernandez in the final, 6–4, 6–3 to win the women’s singles tennis title at the 2021 US Open. She became the first qualifier, male or female, to reach a major final and win a major title, as well as the first singles qualifier to reach the semifinals at the US Open.
Thus, option A is correct.
Who has been selected for the Nobel Peace Prize, 2021?
Explanation
The 2021 Nobel Peace Prize was announced by the Norwegian Nobel Committee in Oslo on 8 October 2021. Maria Ressa and Dmitry Muratov received the prize “for their efforts to safeguard freedom of expression, which is a precondition for democracy and lasting peace.”
Thus, option c is correct.
Explanation
The 2021 Nobel Peace Prize was announced by the Norwegian Nobel Committee in Oslo on 8 October 2021. Maria Ressa and Dmitry Muratov received the prize “for their efforts to safeguard freedom of expression, which is a precondition for democracy and lasting peace.”
Thus, option c is correct.
Explanation
The 2021 Nobel Peace Prize was announced by the Norwegian Nobel Committee in Oslo on 8 October 2021. Maria Ressa and Dmitry Muratov received the prize “for their efforts to safeguard freedom of expression, which is a precondition for democracy and lasting peace.”
Thus, option c is correct.
Which among the following is not a member of the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue-an informal strategic forum?
Explanation
• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) also known as Quad, is an Inter-governmental security forum.
• It comprises of 4 countries– India, the United States, Japan and Australia. The member countries of the Quad organise summits, exchanges the information and military drills.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) also known as Quad, is an Inter-governmental security forum.
• It comprises of 4 countries– India, the United States, Japan and Australia. The member countries of the Quad organise summits, exchanges the information and military drills.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
• The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QSD) also known as Quad, is an Inter-governmental security forum.
• It comprises of 4 countries– India, the United States, Japan and Australia. The member countries of the Quad organise summits, exchanges the information and military drills.
Thus, option C is correct.
Where was the 38th ASEAN Summit virtually held in 2021?
Explanation
The 38th summit of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was held at Brunei.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
The 38th summit of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was held at Brunei.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
The 38th summit of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) was held at Brunei.
Thus, option D is correct.
NITI Aayog has signed a Statement of Intent with the United Nations World Food Program for mainstreaming of millets and supporting India in taking lead globally in knowledge exchange using the opportunity of _____________ as International Year of Millets.
Explanation
National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog has signed a Statement of Intent with the United Nations World Food Program for mainstreaming of millets and supporting India in taking lead globally in knowledge exchange using the opportunity of 2023 as International Year of Millets.
The Sol focuses on strategic and technical collaboration between NITI Aayog and WFP to strengthen climate-resilient agriculture for enhanced food and nutrition security in India.
Aim: To build resilient livelihoods for small-holder farmers and adopt the capacities to climate change and transforming food systems.
Explanation
National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog has signed a Statement of Intent with the United Nations World Food Program for mainstreaming of millets and supporting India in taking lead globally in knowledge exchange using the opportunity of 2023 as International Year of Millets.
The Sol focuses on strategic and technical collaboration between NITI Aayog and WFP to strengthen climate-resilient agriculture for enhanced food and nutrition security in India.
Aim: To build resilient livelihoods for small-holder farmers and adopt the capacities to climate change and transforming food systems.
Explanation
National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog has signed a Statement of Intent with the United Nations World Food Program for mainstreaming of millets and supporting India in taking lead globally in knowledge exchange using the opportunity of 2023 as International Year of Millets.
The Sol focuses on strategic and technical collaboration between NITI Aayog and WFP to strengthen climate-resilient agriculture for enhanced food and nutrition security in India.
Aim: To build resilient livelihoods for small-holder farmers and adopt the capacities to climate change and transforming food systems.
The name of India’s first indigenous anti-radiation missile is
Explanation
According to a statement released by the DRDO Friday, RUDRAM is the first indigenous anti-radiation missile of the country, and has the capability of varying ranges based on launch conditions.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
According to a statement released by the DRDO Friday, RUDRAM is the first indigenous anti-radiation missile of the country, and has the capability of varying ranges based on launch conditions.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
According to a statement released by the DRDO Friday, RUDRAM is the first indigenous anti-radiation missile of the country, and has the capability of varying ranges based on launch conditions.
Thus, option D is correct.
The Union government has launched a new market segment GDAM to promote________________
Explanation
The Union government has launched a new market segment, Green Day Ahead Market (GDAM), which will enable electricity generation and distribution companies to buy or sell renewable energy through open access.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
The Union government has launched a new market segment, Green Day Ahead Market (GDAM), which will enable electricity generation and distribution companies to buy or sell renewable energy through open access.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
The Union government has launched a new market segment, Green Day Ahead Market (GDAM), which will enable electricity generation and distribution companies to buy or sell renewable energy through open access.
Thus, option A is correct.
The Objective of PM-KUSUM Scheme is
Explanation
Government has approved Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme with an objective of increasing farmers’ income, provide reliable source for irrigation and de-dieselise the farm sector.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Government has approved Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme with an objective of increasing farmers’ income, provide reliable source for irrigation and de-dieselise the farm sector.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Government has approved Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme with an objective of increasing farmers’ income, provide reliable source for irrigation and de-dieselise the farm sector.
Thus, option D is correct.
Consider following statements with respect to Schedule to the Constitution of India:
1. Second schedule deal with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
2. Twelfth Schedule specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities on Panchayats and Municipalities
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
•Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of authorities such as Union Ministers, judges of Supreme Court etc.
•Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
•Eleventh Schedule: Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
•Twelfth Schedule: Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of authorities such as Union Ministers, judges of Supreme Court etc.
•Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
•Eleventh Schedule: Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
•Twelfth Schedule: Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•Second Schedule: Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges of authorities such as Union Ministers, judges of Supreme Court etc.
•Fourth Schedule: Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and the union territories.
•Eleventh Schedule: Specifies the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats. It has 29 matters. This schedule was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992.
•Twelfth Schedule: Municipalities. It has 18 matters. This schedule was added by the 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
Thus, option D is correct.
Which of the following statements with respect to values enshrined in the Preamble is/are correct?
Explanation
•The word ‘sovereign’ implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an independent state. There is no authority above it, and it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external).
•Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
•A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people.
•The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
•The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
•A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The word ‘sovereign’ implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an independent state. There is no authority above it, and it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external).
•Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
•A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people.
•The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
•The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
•A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The word ‘sovereign’ implies that India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation, but an independent state. There is no authority above it, and it is free to conduct its own affairs (both internal and external).
•Being a sovereign state, India can either acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
•A democratic polity, as stipulated in the Preamble, is based on the doctrine of popular sovereignty, that is, possession of supreme power by the people.
•The term ‘democratic’ is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social and economic democracy.
•The term ‘republic’ in our Preamble indicates that India has an elected head called the president. He is elected indirectly for a fixed period of five years.
•A republic also means two more things: one, vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king; second, the absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
Thus, option D is correct.
Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy were not added by the 42nd Amendment Act?
Explanation:
•The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
1.To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2.To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3.To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4.To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
•The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
•The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to co-operative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation:
•The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
1.To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2.To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3.To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4.To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
•The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
•The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to co-operative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation:
•The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
1.To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2.To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3.To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
4.To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
•The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle, which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
•The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to co-operative societies. It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Thus, option B is correct.
Consider the following pairs:
(Constitutional Source): (Features)
1. Canadian: Federation with a strong Centre Constitution:
2. French: Ideals of liberty equality and Constitution fraternity
3. Japanese: Procedure established by Constitution law:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
Sources Features Borrowed
1. Government of India Act of 1935 : Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
2. British Constitution : Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
3. US Constitution : Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
4. Irish Constitution : Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president.
5. Canadian Constitution : Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
6. Australian Constitution : Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
7. Weimar Constitution of Germany : Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
8. Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia) : Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble.
9. French Constitution : Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble. 10. South African Constitution : Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya Sabha.
11. Japanese Constitution : Procedure established by Law.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Sources Features Borrowed
1. Government of India Act of 1935 : Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
2. British Constitution : Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
3. US Constitution : Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
4. Irish Constitution : Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president.
5. Canadian Constitution : Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
6. Australian Constitution : Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
7. Weimar Constitution of Germany : Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
8. Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia) : Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble.
9. French Constitution : Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble. 10. South African Constitution : Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya Sabha.
11. Japanese Constitution : Procedure established by Law.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Sources Features Borrowed
1. Government of India Act of 1935 : Federal Scheme, Office of governor, Judiciary, Public Service Commissions, Emergency provisions and administrative details.
2. British Constitution : Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, Legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism.
3. US Constitution : Fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice-president.
4. Irish Constitution : Directive Principles of State Policy, nomination of members to Rajya Sabha and method of election of president.
5. Canadian Constitution : Federation with a strong Centre, vesting of residuary powers in the Centre, appointment of state governors by the Centre, and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
6. Australian Constitution : Concurrent List, freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, and joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
7. Weimar Constitution of Germany : Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
8. Soviet Constitution (USSR, now Russia) : Fundamental duties and the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble.
9. French Constitution : Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble. 10. South African Constitution : Procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya Sabha.
11. Japanese Constitution : Procedure established by Law.
Thus, option D is correct.
Consider the following statements related to Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. The CRR is the percentage of deposits which the banks are required to keep with the RBI.
2. During inflation, the CRR is increased by the RBI.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
•Banks in India are required to hold a certain proportion of their deposits in the form of cash with Reserve Bank of India. This minimum ratio is stipulated by the RBI and is known as the CRR or Cash Reserve Ratio.
•During Inflation, the banks would be required to give fewer loans in the economy and hence the RBI increases the CRR. However, the CRR is reduced when the economy is facing recession or liquidity crunch.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•Banks in India are required to hold a certain proportion of their deposits in the form of cash with Reserve Bank of India. This minimum ratio is stipulated by the RBI and is known as the CRR or Cash Reserve Ratio.
•During Inflation, the banks would be required to give fewer loans in the economy and hence the RBI increases the CRR. However, the CRR is reduced when the economy is facing recession or liquidity crunch.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•Banks in India are required to hold a certain proportion of their deposits in the form of cash with Reserve Bank of India. This minimum ratio is stipulated by the RBI and is known as the CRR or Cash Reserve Ratio.
•During Inflation, the banks would be required to give fewer loans in the economy and hence the RBI increases the CRR. However, the CRR is reduced when the economy is facing recession or liquidity crunch.
Thus, option C is correct.
Which among the following transactions are recorded under the Current Account of the Balance of the Payments (BoP)?
1. Imports and Exports
2. Foreign Direct Investment
3. Remittances
4. External Commercial Borrowings
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
•The Balance of Payment captures all the economic transactions of a country with other countries for a period of 1 year. The BoP consists of Current Account and Capital Account.
•The Current Account comprises of Imports and Exports, Remittances, profits, interest, dividends, Bilateral aid etc.
•On the other hand, the Capital Account comprises of FDI, FPI, ECBs, Loans from the multilateral institutions such as World Bank etc.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•The Balance of Payment captures all the economic transactions of a country with other countries for a period of 1 year. The BoP consists of Current Account and Capital Account.
•The Current Account comprises of Imports and Exports, Remittances, profits, interest, dividends, Bilateral aid etc.
•On the other hand, the Capital Account comprises of FDI, FPI, ECBs, Loans from the multilateral institutions such as World Bank etc.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•The Balance of Payment captures all the economic transactions of a country with other countries for a period of 1 year. The BoP consists of Current Account and Capital Account.
•The Current Account comprises of Imports and Exports, Remittances, profits, interest, dividends, Bilateral aid etc.
•On the other hand, the Capital Account comprises of FDI, FPI, ECBs, Loans from the multilateral institutions such as World Bank etc.
Thus, option C is correct.
There is a situation in which one farmer worked initially in a plot of 2 Hectares but now his four sons are working on the same 2 hectares, as they have nowhere to go. What kind of unemployment does this situation portray?
• The situation wherein a plot of 2 Hectares where one farmer worked initially, but now his four sons are working on the same 2 hectares, as they have nowhere to go, is an example of Disguised unemployment.
• Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed. This is the situation of underemployment, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential. This kind of underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Hence, it is also called disguised unemployment.
Thus, Option B is correct.
• The situation wherein a plot of 2 Hectares where one farmer worked initially, but now his four sons are working on the same 2 hectares, as they have nowhere to go, is an example of Disguised unemployment.
• Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed. This is the situation of underemployment, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential. This kind of underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Hence, it is also called disguised unemployment.
Thus, Option B is correct.
• The situation wherein a plot of 2 Hectares where one farmer worked initially, but now his four sons are working on the same 2 hectares, as they have nowhere to go, is an example of Disguised unemployment.
• Each one is doing some work but no one is fully employed. This is the situation of underemployment, where people are apparently working but all of them are made to work less than their potential. This kind of underemployment is hidden in contrast to someone who does not have a job and is clearly visible as unemployed. Hence, it is also called disguised unemployment.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Which of the following is not one of the Consumer Rights?
• Right to be informed, Right to seek redressal and Right to represent are Consumer Rights.
Thus, Option D is correct.
• Right to be informed, Right to seek redressal and Right to represent are Consumer Rights.
Thus, Option D is correct.
• Right to be informed, Right to seek redressal and Right to represent are Consumer Rights.
Thus, Option D is correct.
Which of the following correctly describes the ‘Open Market Operations (OMOs)’?
• Open Market Operations: This refers to buying and selling of government securities by RBI to regulate the short-term money supply. If RBI wants to induce liquidity or more funds in the system, it will buy government securities and inject funds into the system, and if it wants to curb the amount of money out there it will sell these to the banks thereby reducing the amount of cash that banks have.
Thus, Option C is correct.
• Open Market Operations: This refers to buying and selling of government securities by RBI to regulate the short-term money supply. If RBI wants to induce liquidity or more funds in the system, it will buy government securities and inject funds into the system, and if it wants to curb the amount of money out there it will sell these to the banks thereby reducing the amount of cash that banks have.
Thus, Option C is correct.
• Open Market Operations: This refers to buying and selling of government securities by RBI to regulate the short-term money supply. If RBI wants to induce liquidity or more funds in the system, it will buy government securities and inject funds into the system, and if it wants to curb the amount of money out there it will sell these to the banks thereby reducing the amount of cash that banks have.
Thus, Option C is correct.
The Chinese traveler Hieun Tsang, who visited India at the time of Harshvardhana, talked highly of which area of Punjab?
Explanation
Bara is a village in Rupnagar District in Punjab, India.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
Bara is a village in Rupnagar District in Punjab, India.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
Bara is a village in Rupnagar District in Punjab, India.
Thus, option B is correct.
Which one of the following is the lengthiest highway in Punjab?
Explanation
National Highway 15 is the longest national highway in Punjab covering 350km in the state and connecting Pathankot, Amritsar, Tarn Taran,Faridkot and Abohar cities of Punjab, and then leads to Sri Ganganagar and Bikaner in Rajasthan.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
National Highway 15 is the longest national highway in Punjab covering 350km in the state and connecting Pathankot, Amritsar, Tarn Taran,Faridkot and Abohar cities of Punjab, and then leads to Sri Ganganagar and Bikaner in Rajasthan.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
National Highway 15 is the longest national highway in Punjab covering 350km in the state and connecting Pathankot, Amritsar, Tarn Taran,Faridkot and Abohar cities of Punjab, and then leads to Sri Ganganagar and Bikaner in Rajasthan.
Thus, option D is correct.
“Meriyan Abhul Yaadan” is the composition of which of the following?
Explanation
Meriyan Abhul Yaadan is authored by Gurbaksh Singh Preetlari.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
Meriyan Abhul Yaadan is authored by Gurbaksh Singh Preetlari.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
Meriyan Abhul Yaadan is authored by Gurbaksh Singh Preetlari.
Thus, option C is correct.
Rakh Sarai Amanat Khan Conservation Reserve is situated in which of the following districts?
Explanation
Rakh Sarai Amanat Khan is a village located in Gandiwind Block of Tarn Taran district in Punjab. Situated in rural area of Tarn Taran district of Punjab, it is one of the 32 villages of Gandiwind Block of Tarn Taran district. This Conservation Reserve is situated in Tarn Taran district and is spread over 1223 Acres of land. This area was declared as Conservation Reserve in 2010.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
Rakh Sarai Amanat Khan is a village located in Gandiwind Block of Tarn Taran district in Punjab. Situated in rural area of Tarn Taran district of Punjab, it is one of the 32 villages of Gandiwind Block of Tarn Taran district. This Conservation Reserve is situated in Tarn Taran district and is spread over 1223 Acres of land. This area was declared as Conservation Reserve in 2010.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
Rakh Sarai Amanat Khan is a village located in Gandiwind Block of Tarn Taran district in Punjab. Situated in rural area of Tarn Taran district of Punjab, it is one of the 32 villages of Gandiwind Block of Tarn Taran district. This Conservation Reserve is situated in Tarn Taran district and is spread over 1223 Acres of land. This area was declared as Conservation Reserve in 2010.
Thus, option C is correct.
Consider the following pairs:
Plateau Region
1. Laurentian : Canada
2. Altiplano : Mexico
3. Kimberley : Australia
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
Plateaus are flat, elevated landforms that rise sharply above the surrounding area on at least one side.
Plateaus occur on every continent and take up a third of the Earths land. The largest plateau in the world is
the Tibetan Plateau, located in central Asia. It stretches through the countries of Tibet, China, and India
and occupies an area of 2.5 million square kilometers (1.5 million square miles).
• Some of the other major plateaus of the world are
o Columbia – Snake Plateau (USA)
o Colorado Plateau (USA)
o Deccan Plateau (India)
o Kimberley Plateau (Australia)
o Mexican Plateau (Mexico)
o Laurentian Plateau (Canada)
o Bolivian Plateau (or Altiplano Plateau) (Bolivia)
o Anatolian Plateau (Turkey)
• Hence only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Explanation
Plateaus are flat, elevated landforms that rise sharply above the surrounding area on at least one side.
Plateaus occur on every continent and take up a third of the Earths land. The largest plateau in the world is
the Tibetan Plateau, located in central Asia. It stretches through the countries of Tibet, China, and India
and occupies an area of 2.5 million square kilometers (1.5 million square miles).
• Some of the other major plateaus of the world are
o Columbia – Snake Plateau (USA)
o Colorado Plateau (USA)
o Deccan Plateau (India)
o Kimberley Plateau (Australia)
o Mexican Plateau (Mexico)
o Laurentian Plateau (Canada)
o Bolivian Plateau (or Altiplano Plateau) (Bolivia)
o Anatolian Plateau (Turkey)
• Hence only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Explanation
Plateaus are flat, elevated landforms that rise sharply above the surrounding area on at least one side.
Plateaus occur on every continent and take up a third of the Earths land. The largest plateau in the world is
the Tibetan Plateau, located in central Asia. It stretches through the countries of Tibet, China, and India
and occupies an area of 2.5 million square kilometers (1.5 million square miles).
• Some of the other major plateaus of the world are
o Columbia – Snake Plateau (USA)
o Colorado Plateau (USA)
o Deccan Plateau (India)
o Kimberley Plateau (Australia)
o Mexican Plateau (Mexico)
o Laurentian Plateau (Canada)
o Bolivian Plateau (or Altiplano Plateau) (Bolivia)
o Anatolian Plateau (Turkey)
• Hence only pairs 1 and 3 are correctly matched.
Consider the following pairs:
(Physical Feature) (Countries)
1. Iberian Peninsula- New Zealand
2. Gran Chaco- Paraguay
3. Kimberley plateau- Australia
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
• Iberian Peninsula is in Europe. It is associated with Portugal and Spain.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
• Iberian Peninsula is in Europe. It is associated with Portugal and Spain.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
• Iberian Peninsula is in Europe. It is associated with Portugal and Spain.
Thus, option B is correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. The Sabarmati river is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India.
2. It originates in the border of Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
• The Sabarmati river is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India. It originates in the Aravalli Range of the Udaipur District of Rajasthan and flows into the Gulf of Cambay of Arabian Sea.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
• The Sabarmati river is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India. It originates in the Aravalli Range of the Udaipur District of Rajasthan and flows into the Gulf of Cambay of Arabian Sea.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
• The Sabarmati river is one of the major west-flowing rivers in India. It originates in the Aravalli Range of the Udaipur District of Rajasthan and flows into the Gulf of Cambay of Arabian Sea.
Thus, option A is correct.
Which of the following statements related to tropical evergreen forests in India is correct?
Explanation
• They are found on western slopes of Western Ghats
• Sal and teak are important species of deciduous forests
• They are spread along western coast of India and not along eastern coast.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
• They are found on western slopes of Western Ghats
• Sal and teak are important species of deciduous forests
• They are spread along western coast of India and not along eastern coast.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
• They are found on western slopes of Western Ghats
• Sal and teak are important species of deciduous forests
• They are spread along western coast of India and not along eastern coast.
Thus, option B is correct.
Which of the following are not grown in the kharif season?
Explanation
• The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.
• The rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
• The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.
• The rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
• The kharif crops include rice, maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc.
• The rabi crops include wheat, barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc.
Thus, option C is correct.
India is making ‘Mangdechhu hydropower project’ in which of the following countries?
Explanation
• India is making ‘Mangdechhu hydropower project’ in Bhutan.
•The Mangdechhu project was bagged by the Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (BHEL) and it will be implemented on a bilateral basis.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
• India is making ‘Mangdechhu hydropower project’ in Bhutan.
•The Mangdechhu project was bagged by the Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (BHEL) and it will be implemented on a bilateral basis.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
• India is making ‘Mangdechhu hydropower project’ in Bhutan.
•The Mangdechhu project was bagged by the Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd. (BHEL) and it will be implemented on a bilateral basis.
Thus, option D is correct.
The difference between birth rate and death rate in particular region refers to which of the following?
Explanation
•Natural growth rate = Births rate – death rate
•Actual growth rate = Births – Deaths + In migration – out migration
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•Natural growth rate = Births rate – death rate
•Actual growth rate = Births – Deaths + In migration – out migration
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•Natural growth rate = Births rate – death rate
•Actual growth rate = Births – Deaths + In migration – out migration
Thus, option B is correct.
Consider the following pairs:
(Dam/ Canal) (River )
1.Sirhind canal – Beas
2. Nagarjun- Krishna sagar
3. Kurnool cuddapah canal – Tungabhadra
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
•Sirhind Canal is located in the Punjab. The system’s headworks, where it draws its water, are on the Sutlej River at Ropar, near the border of Himāchal Pradesh state.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•Sirhind Canal is located in the Punjab. The system’s headworks, where it draws its water, are on the Sutlej River at Ropar, near the border of Himāchal Pradesh state.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•Sirhind Canal is located in the Punjab. The system’s headworks, where it draws its water, are on the Sutlej River at Ropar, near the border of Himāchal Pradesh state.
Thus, option C is correct.
The term ‘Forest area’ is related to which of the following?
Explanation
•The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:
•Forests: It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:
•Forests: It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The land-use categories as maintained in the Land Revenue Records are as follows:
•Forests: It is important to note that area under actual forest cover is different from area classified as forest. The latter is the area which the Government has identified and demarcated for forest growth. The land revenue records are consistent with the latter definition. Thus, there may be an increase in this category without any increase in the actual forest cover.
Thus, option D is correct.
Copper deposits are found in which of the following areas?
1.Balaghat, Madhya Pradesh
2.Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan
3.Chikmanglur, Karnataka
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
•Copper is found in mainly 3 states of India
•Madhya Pradesh – Malkanganj belt of Balaghat district.
•Rajasthan – Khetri Singhana belt in Jhunjhunu
•Jharkhand – Singhbhum district.
•It is not found in the southern states of India.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•Copper is found in mainly 3 states of India
•Madhya Pradesh – Malkanganj belt of Balaghat district.
•Rajasthan – Khetri Singhana belt in Jhunjhunu
•Jharkhand – Singhbhum district.
•It is not found in the southern states of India.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•Copper is found in mainly 3 states of India
•Madhya Pradesh – Malkanganj belt of Balaghat district.
•Rajasthan – Khetri Singhana belt in Jhunjhunu
•Jharkhand – Singhbhum district.
•It is not found in the southern states of India.
Thus, option B is correct.
Which among the following countries are members of Organisation of Petroleum exporting countries (OPEC)?
1.Nigeria
2.Iraq
3.Ecuador
4.USA
5.Russia
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
•The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
•These countries were later joined by Qatar, Libya, UAE, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea and Congo. The OPEC Statute stipulates that “any country with a substantial net export of crude petroleum, which has fundamentally similar interests to those of Member Countries, may become a Full Member of the Organization, if accepted by a majority of three-fourths of Full Members, including the concurring votes of all Founder Members.”
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
•These countries were later joined by Qatar, Libya, UAE, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea and Congo. The OPEC Statute stipulates that “any country with a substantial net export of crude petroleum, which has fundamentally similar interests to those of Member Countries, may become a Full Member of the Organization, if accepted by a majority of three-fourths of Full Members, including the concurring votes of all Founder Members.”
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in Baghdad, Iraq, with the signing of an agreement in September 1960 by five countries namely Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela. They were to become the Founder Members of the Organization.
•These countries were later joined by Qatar, Libya, UAE, Algeria, Nigeria, Ecuador, Gabon, Angola, Equatorial Guinea and Congo. The OPEC Statute stipulates that “any country with a substantial net export of crude petroleum, which has fundamentally similar interests to those of Member Countries, may become a Full Member of the Organization, if accepted by a majority of three-fourths of Full Members, including the concurring votes of all Founder Members.”
Thus, option B is correct.
Aman, aus and boro are related to which of the following crops?
Explanation
•Three crops of rice namely Aus, aman and boro are grown in a year in west Bengal.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•Three crops of rice namely Aus, aman and boro are grown in a year in west Bengal.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•Three crops of rice namely Aus, aman and boro are grown in a year in west Bengal.
Thus, option D is correct.
The Rhine Waterway connects industrial areas of which of the following countries?
1. Switzerland
2. France
3. Belgium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Explanation
•The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam, at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam, at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The Rhine flows through Germany and the Netherlands. It is navigable for 700 km from Rotterdam, at its mouth in the Netherlands to Basel in Switzerland. It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and the Netherlands with the North Atlantic Sea Route.
Thus, option D is correct.
Which of the following states has deposits of monazite and thorium?
Explanation
•Beach sands of Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium which are crucial for India’s Nuclear programme.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•Beach sands of Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium which are crucial for India’s Nuclear programme.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•Beach sands of Kerala has deposits of monazite and thorium which are crucial for India’s Nuclear programme.
Thus, option D is correct.
During the revolt of 1857 which of the following fought against the British state in Punjab?
Explanation
The short-lived rebellion of Ahmad Khan Kharral was the only major rebellion of any sort against the British state in Punjab. While most of the emissaries coming from Delhi were intercepted, it seems some managed to reach Kharral at the end of May. The leader of the Kharral clan – settled in an area that was later called Montgomery by the British, in honour of Robert Montgomery, one of the brains behind the colonial state’s policy in Punjab during the 1857 war – Ahmad Khan Kharral was not only able to unite his people but also bring together other prominent clans of the region, including the Wattoos, Joyas, Fatianas and Sials.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
The short-lived rebellion of Ahmad Khan Kharral was the only major rebellion of any sort against the British state in Punjab. While most of the emissaries coming from Delhi were intercepted, it seems some managed to reach Kharral at the end of May. The leader of the Kharral clan – settled in an area that was later called Montgomery by the British, in honour of Robert Montgomery, one of the brains behind the colonial state’s policy in Punjab during the 1857 war – Ahmad Khan Kharral was not only able to unite his people but also bring together other prominent clans of the region, including the Wattoos, Joyas, Fatianas and Sials.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
The short-lived rebellion of Ahmad Khan Kharral was the only major rebellion of any sort against the British state in Punjab. While most of the emissaries coming from Delhi were intercepted, it seems some managed to reach Kharral at the end of May. The leader of the Kharral clan – settled in an area that was later called Montgomery by the British, in honour of Robert Montgomery, one of the brains behind the colonial state’s policy in Punjab during the 1857 war – Ahmad Khan Kharral was not only able to unite his people but also bring together other prominent clans of the region, including the Wattoos, Joyas, Fatianas and Sials.
Thus, option D is correct.
Consider the following statements related to Wholesale Price Index (WPI):
1. The decline in the food prices would lead to greater decline in WPI as compared to CPI.
2. It is released by the Central Statistical Organisation every month.
Which of the statements given above is/are Not correct?
Explanation
•Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale. The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. The manufactured products under the WPI have the highest weightage, which means any increase or fall in the value of the manufactured products would have a greater impact on the WPI rate of inflation.
•However, the CPI has given the highest weightage to the Food Commodities. Hence, whenever there is decline in food prices, both WPI and CPI would decrease. However, the CPI rate of inflation would show greater decline since it assigns higher weight to the food commodities.
•The RBI has been mandated to keep the CPI rate of inflation at 4% which can either increase or decrease by 2%.
•Further, the CPI is published by the CSO, while the WPI is published by the office of Economic Advisor under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale. The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. The manufactured products under the WPI have the highest weightage, which means any increase or fall in the value of the manufactured products would have a greater impact on the WPI rate of inflation.
•However, the CPI has given the highest weightage to the Food Commodities. Hence, whenever there is decline in food prices, both WPI and CPI would decrease. However, the CPI rate of inflation would show greater decline since it assigns higher weight to the food commodities.
•The RBI has been mandated to keep the CPI rate of inflation at 4% which can either increase or decrease by 2%.
•Further, the CPI is published by the CSO, while the WPI is published by the office of Economic Advisor under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•Wholesale Price Index (WPI) measures the average change in the prices of commodities for bulk sale. The index basket of the WPI covers commodities falling under the three major groups namely Primary Articles, Fuel and Power and Manufactured products. The manufactured products under the WPI have the highest weightage, which means any increase or fall in the value of the manufactured products would have a greater impact on the WPI rate of inflation.
•However, the CPI has given the highest weightage to the Food Commodities. Hence, whenever there is decline in food prices, both WPI and CPI would decrease. However, the CPI rate of inflation would show greater decline since it assigns higher weight to the food commodities.
•The RBI has been mandated to keep the CPI rate of inflation at 4% which can either increase or decrease by 2%.
•Further, the CPI is published by the CSO, while the WPI is published by the office of Economic Advisor under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
Thus, option C is correct.
Consider the following statements about Gene Drive Technology:
1. Gene drive technology can potentially eliminate mosquitoes that cause malaria, dengue, zika and chikungunya.
2. It also has potential to eliminate pests infecting crops in agriculture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
•In scientific research, periodically, blockbuster applications with the potential to prevent and cure diseases of mankind as never before take the community by storm.
•Gene therapy, stem cell therapy and synthetic biology are some such examples. Although, backed by strong scientific evidence, applications get entangled with too many technical, ethical and environmental issues to even realise modest success.
•Gene drive technology to wipe out insects and pests is the latest addition in this category. It can potentially eliminate mosquitoes that cause malaria, dengue, Zika, chikungunya, yellow fever, West Nile, sleeping sickness, Lyme and others. It also has potential to eliminate pests infecting crops in agriculture.
•Barbara McClintock got the Nobel Prize for discovering the jumping genes in maize. Transposons or jumping genes are DNA elements that move from one location to another in the genome.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•In scientific research, periodically, blockbuster applications with the potential to prevent and cure diseases of mankind as never before take the community by storm.
•Gene therapy, stem cell therapy and synthetic biology are some such examples. Although, backed by strong scientific evidence, applications get entangled with too many technical, ethical and environmental issues to even realise modest success.
•Gene drive technology to wipe out insects and pests is the latest addition in this category. It can potentially eliminate mosquitoes that cause malaria, dengue, Zika, chikungunya, yellow fever, West Nile, sleeping sickness, Lyme and others. It also has potential to eliminate pests infecting crops in agriculture.
•Barbara McClintock got the Nobel Prize for discovering the jumping genes in maize. Transposons or jumping genes are DNA elements that move from one location to another in the genome.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•In scientific research, periodically, blockbuster applications with the potential to prevent and cure diseases of mankind as never before take the community by storm.
•Gene therapy, stem cell therapy and synthetic biology are some such examples. Although, backed by strong scientific evidence, applications get entangled with too many technical, ethical and environmental issues to even realise modest success.
•Gene drive technology to wipe out insects and pests is the latest addition in this category. It can potentially eliminate mosquitoes that cause malaria, dengue, Zika, chikungunya, yellow fever, West Nile, sleeping sickness, Lyme and others. It also has potential to eliminate pests infecting crops in agriculture.
•Barbara McClintock got the Nobel Prize for discovering the jumping genes in maize. Transposons or jumping genes are DNA elements that move from one location to another in the genome.
Thus, option C is correct.
Consider the following statements about the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC):
1. INSTC is a multi-modal transportation established in St. Petersburg, Russia.
2. This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Islamic republic of Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
•The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), is a multi-modal transportation established in 2000 in St. Petersburg, by Iran, Russia and India for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States. This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Islamic Republic of Iran, then it is connected to St. Petersburg and North European via Russian Federation.
•The INSTC was expanded to include eleven new members, namely: Republic of Azerbaijan, Republic of Armenia, Republic of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Republic of Tajikistan, Republic of Turkey, Republic of Ukraine, Republic of Belarus, Oman, Syria and Bulgaria (Observer).
•The INSTC has moved closer to implementation after India decided to join International Customs Convention TIR following cabinet approval.
•INSTC transit routes enable India to bypass a hostile Pakistan by exporting goods via the sea.
•That is why India has been developing the Chabahar Port in southern Iran in a strategic bid to connect to Central Asia through Iran and Afghanistan. Chabahar provides war-torn Afghanistan a crucial link to Indian goods and Iranian oil.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), is a multi-modal transportation established in 2000 in St. Petersburg, by Iran, Russia and India for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States. This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Islamic Republic of Iran, then it is connected to St. Petersburg and North European via Russian Federation.
•The INSTC was expanded to include eleven new members, namely: Republic of Azerbaijan, Republic of Armenia, Republic of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Republic of Tajikistan, Republic of Turkey, Republic of Ukraine, Republic of Belarus, Oman, Syria and Bulgaria (Observer).
•The INSTC has moved closer to implementation after India decided to join International Customs Convention TIR following cabinet approval.
•INSTC transit routes enable India to bypass a hostile Pakistan by exporting goods via the sea.
•That is why India has been developing the Chabahar Port in southern Iran in a strategic bid to connect to Central Asia through Iran and Afghanistan. Chabahar provides war-torn Afghanistan a crucial link to Indian goods and Iranian oil.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
•The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), is a multi-modal transportation established in 2000 in St. Petersburg, by Iran, Russia and India for the purpose of promoting transportation cooperation among the Member States. This corridor connects India Ocean and Persian Gulf to the Caspian Sea via Islamic Republic of Iran, then it is connected to St. Petersburg and North European via Russian Federation.
•The INSTC was expanded to include eleven new members, namely: Republic of Azerbaijan, Republic of Armenia, Republic of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyz Republic, Republic of Tajikistan, Republic of Turkey, Republic of Ukraine, Republic of Belarus, Oman, Syria and Bulgaria (Observer).
•The INSTC has moved closer to implementation after India decided to join International Customs Convention TIR following cabinet approval.
•INSTC transit routes enable India to bypass a hostile Pakistan by exporting goods via the sea.
•That is why India has been developing the Chabahar Port in southern Iran in a strategic bid to connect to Central Asia through Iran and Afghanistan. Chabahar provides war-torn Afghanistan a crucial link to Indian goods and Iranian oil.
Thus, option C is correct.
Which of the following best describes the term “Ecological Flow”?
Explanation
•It describe the quantity, timing, and quality of water flows required to sustain freshwater and estuarine ecosystems and the human livelihoods and well-being that depend on these ecosystems.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•It describe the quantity, timing, and quality of water flows required to sustain freshwater and estuarine ecosystems and the human livelihoods and well-being that depend on these ecosystems.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
•It describe the quantity, timing, and quality of water flows required to sustain freshwater and estuarine ecosystems and the human livelihoods and well-being that depend on these ecosystems.
Thus, option B is correct.
With reference to IPCC (Intergovernmental panel on Climate Change), Consider the following statements:
1. It was set up in 1988 by the World Bank and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change.
2. IPCC undertakes scientific field projects to combat Climate effectively.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
•The IPCC was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
•The assessments are policy-relevant but not policy-prescriptive: they may present projections of future climate change based on different scenarios and the risks that climate change poses and discuss the implications of response options, but they do not tell policymakers what actions to take.
•IPCC does not undertake scientific field projects, it only brings out reports which provide regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The IPCC was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
•The assessments are policy-relevant but not policy-prescriptive: they may present projections of future climate change based on different scenarios and the risks that climate change poses and discuss the implications of response options, but they do not tell policymakers what actions to take.
•IPCC does not undertake scientific field projects, it only brings out reports which provide regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
•The IPCC was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide policymakers with regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
•The assessments are policy-relevant but not policy-prescriptive: they may present projections of future climate change based on different scenarios and the risks that climate change poses and discuss the implications of response options, but they do not tell policymakers what actions to take.
•IPCC does not undertake scientific field projects, it only brings out reports which provide regular assessments of the scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and future risks, and options for adaptation and mitigation.
Thus, option D is correct.
‘Food Sustainability Index’ report is published by
Explanation
The Food Sustainability Index was developed in collaboration between the BCFN Foundation and the Economist Intelligence Unit, with one common objective: to promote knowledge on food sustainability.
The Food Sustainability Index is a global study on nutrition, sustainable agriculture and food waste which collects data from 67 countries across the world to highlight best practices and key areas for improvement in relation to the food paradoxes and the main Sustainable Development Goals.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
The Food Sustainability Index was developed in collaboration between the BCFN Foundation and the Economist Intelligence Unit, with one common objective: to promote knowledge on food sustainability.
The Food Sustainability Index is a global study on nutrition, sustainable agriculture and food waste which collects data from 67 countries across the world to highlight best practices and key areas for improvement in relation to the food paradoxes and the main Sustainable Development Goals.
Thus, option A is correct.
Explanation
The Food Sustainability Index was developed in collaboration between the BCFN Foundation and the Economist Intelligence Unit, with one common objective: to promote knowledge on food sustainability.
The Food Sustainability Index is a global study on nutrition, sustainable agriculture and food waste which collects data from 67 countries across the world to highlight best practices and key areas for improvement in relation to the food paradoxes and the main Sustainable Development Goals.
Thus, option A is correct.
Consider the following statements about the World Customs Organization (WCO):
1. The World Customs Organization (WCO) was established as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC).
2. It is an intergovernmental organization headquartered in Brussels, Belgium.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Explanation
The World Customs Organization (WCO), established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.Today, the WCO represents 182 Customs administrations across the globe that collectively process approximately 98% of world trade.
Thus, option C is correct
Explanation
The World Customs Organization (WCO), established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.Today, the WCO represents 182 Customs administrations across the globe that collectively process approximately 98% of world trade.
Thus, option C is correct
Explanation
The World Customs Organization (WCO), established in 1952 as the Customs Co-operation Council (CCC) is an independent intergovernmental body whose mission is to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of Customs administrations.Today, the WCO represents 182 Customs administrations across the globe that collectively process approximately 98% of world trade.
Thus, option C is correct
Which of the following is the largest committee of the Indian parliament?
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the parliament. It consists of 30 members, all are appointed from the Lok Sabha.
Thus, Option B is Correct.
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the parliament. It consists of 30 members, all are appointed from the Lok Sabha.
Thus, Option B is Correct.
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is the largest committee of the parliament. It consists of 30 members, all are appointed from the Lok Sabha.
Thus, Option B is Correct.
The question to amend Fundamental Rights by the Parliament under Article 368 came first time in:
Answer: C
Shankari Prasad case (1951):
• The question to amend Fundamental Rights by the Parliament under Article 368 came first time in this case.
• Supreme Court held that the word ‘law’ in Article 13 includes only ordinary laws and not the constitutional amendment acts (constituent laws).
• Therefore, the Parliament can abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights by enacting a constitutional amendment act and such a law will not be void under Article 13.
Thus, Option C is Correct.
Answer: C
Shankari Prasad case (1951):
• The question to amend Fundamental Rights by the Parliament under Article 368 came first time in this case.
• Supreme Court held that the word ‘law’ in Article 13 includes only ordinary laws and not the constitutional amendment acts (constituent laws).
• Therefore, the Parliament can abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights by enacting a constitutional amendment act and such a law will not be void under Article 13.
Thus, Option C is Correct.
Answer: C
Shankari Prasad case (1951):
• The question to amend Fundamental Rights by the Parliament under Article 368 came first time in this case.
• Supreme Court held that the word ‘law’ in Article 13 includes only ordinary laws and not the constitutional amendment acts (constituent laws).
• Therefore, the Parliament can abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights by enacting a constitutional amendment act and such a law will not be void under Article 13.
Thus, Option C is Correct.
Consider the following pairs:
(JUDGES) (APPOINTING AUTHORITY)
1. Retired SC : judge Chief Justice of India
2. Acting chief : justice in High court President
3. Additional judges in High court : Chief Justice of India
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
The correctly matched pairs are:
• Retired judge (SC): Chief Justice of India
• Acting chief justice (SC/HC) : President
• Ad hoc judge (SC): Chief Justice of India
• Additional judges (High Court): President
Thus, Option A is Correct.
Explanation
The correctly matched pairs are:
• Retired judge (SC): Chief Justice of India
• Acting chief justice (SC/HC) : President
• Ad hoc judge (SC): Chief Justice of India
• Additional judges (High Court): President
Thus, Option A is Correct.
Explanation
The correctly matched pairs are:
• Retired judge (SC): Chief Justice of India
• Acting chief justice (SC/HC) : President
• Ad hoc judge (SC): Chief Justice of India
• Additional judges (High Court): President
Thus, Option A is Correct.
Which of the following question allows an oral answer and hence supplementary questions in the parliament?
Explanation
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
Thus, Option A is correct.
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the provisions of Article 312 in respect of all-India services?
1. For creating a new all India services a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by one-thirds of the members present and voting.
2. Recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to all-India services can be regulated by the Parliament.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 312, The Parliament can create new all India services (including an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. This power of recommendation is given to the Rajya Sabha to protect the interests of states in the Indian federal system.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to all-India services. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the All-India Services Act, 1951 for the purpose. The services known at the commencement of the Constitution (that is, January 26, 1950) as the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service are deemed to be services created by Parliament under this provision.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 312, The Parliament can create new all India services (including an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. This power of recommendation is given to the Rajya Sabha to protect the interests of states in the Indian federal system.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to all-India services. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the All-India Services Act, 1951 for the purpose. The services known at the commencement of the Constitution (that is, January 26, 1950) as the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service are deemed to be services created by Parliament under this provision.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect: As per Article 312, The Parliament can create new all India services (including an all-India judicial service), if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so. Such a resolution in the Rajya Sabha should be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. This power of recommendation is given to the Rajya Sabha to protect the interests of states in the Indian federal system.
Statement 2 is correct: Parliament can regulate the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to all-India services. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the All-India Services Act, 1951 for the purpose. The services known at the commencement of the Constitution (that is, January 26, 1950) as the Indian Administrative Service and the Indian Police Service are deemed to be services created by Parliament under this provision.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Which of the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is not correct?
Explanation
There are several provisions enshrined in the Constitution to safeguard his independent function. These are:
• He is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal and his oath of office requires him to uphold the Constitution of India and laws made there under.
• He shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes such office, provided that where he attains the age of 65 years before the expiry of the said term of six years, he shall vacate such office on the date on which he attains the said age and that he may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
• He can be removed from office only on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity after an address by both the Houses of Parliament supported by a two thirds majority.
• His salary and conditions of service cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
• He shall not be eligible for further office under the Government of India or of any State after retirement.
• His administrative powers and the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department shall be prescribed by rules made by the President only after consulting him.
• The administrative expenses of his office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to being voted by Parliament.
The legal basis for the auditorial functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is provided by the Comptroller and Auditor General’s ( Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Although India has a federal set up, the Constitution provides for a Unitary audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who conducts audit of the accounts of both the Union and the State Governments.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
There are several provisions enshrined in the Constitution to safeguard his independent function. These are:
• He is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal and his oath of office requires him to uphold the Constitution of India and laws made there under.
• He shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes such office, provided that where he attains the age of 65 years before the expiry of the said term of six years, he shall vacate such office on the date on which he attains the said age and that he may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
• He can be removed from office only on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity after an address by both the Houses of Parliament supported by a two thirds majority.
• His salary and conditions of service cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
• He shall not be eligible for further office under the Government of India or of any State after retirement.
• His administrative powers and the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department shall be prescribed by rules made by the President only after consulting him.
• The administrative expenses of his office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to being voted by Parliament.
The legal basis for the auditorial functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is provided by the Comptroller and Auditor General’s ( Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Although India has a federal set up, the Constitution provides for a Unitary audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who conducts audit of the accounts of both the Union and the State Governments.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
There are several provisions enshrined in the Constitution to safeguard his independent function. These are:
• He is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal and his oath of office requires him to uphold the Constitution of India and laws made there under.
• He shall hold office for a term of six years from the date on which he assumes such office, provided that where he attains the age of 65 years before the expiry of the said term of six years, he shall vacate such office on the date on which he attains the said age and that he may, at any time, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign his office.
• He can be removed from office only on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity after an address by both the Houses of Parliament supported by a two thirds majority.
• His salary and conditions of service cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment.
• He shall not be eligible for further office under the Government of India or of any State after retirement.
• His administrative powers and the conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department shall be prescribed by rules made by the President only after consulting him.
• The administrative expenses of his office are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and are not subject to being voted by Parliament.
The legal basis for the auditorial functions of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is provided by the Comptroller and Auditor General’s ( Duties, Powers, and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971. Although India has a federal set up, the Constitution provides for a Unitary audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, who conducts audit of the accounts of both the Union and the State Governments.
Thus, option D is correct.
Which of the following was Gandhiji’s first Satyagraha Movement in India?
Explanation
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi in India and is considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Bihar, India, during the British colonial period.
Thus Option C is Correct.
Explanation
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi in India and is considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Bihar, India, during the British colonial period.
Thus Option C is Correct.
Explanation
The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Gandhi in India and is considered a historically important revolt in the Indian Independence Movement. It was a farmer’s uprising that took place in Champaran district of Bihar, India, during the British colonial period.
Thus Option C is Correct.
Consider the following statements about ‘Jorwe Culture’
1. It refers to a chalcolithic archaeological culture in Maharashtra.
2. Daimabad in the Godavari valley was largest jorwe site.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Jorwe culture was a Chalcolithic archaeological culture which existed in large areas of what is now Maharashtra state in Western India, and also reached north into the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. It is named after the type site of Jorwe.
Statement 2 is correct: Of the 200 jorwe sites discovered so far, the largest is Daimabad in the Godavari valley. It is about 20 hectares in extent which could contain around 4000 people.
Thus, Option C is correct.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Jorwe culture was a Chalcolithic archaeological culture which existed in large areas of what is now Maharashtra state in Western India, and also reached north into the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. It is named after the type site of Jorwe.
Statement 2 is correct: Of the 200 jorwe sites discovered so far, the largest is Daimabad in the Godavari valley. It is about 20 hectares in extent which could contain around 4000 people.
Thus, Option C is correct.
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: The Jorwe culture was a Chalcolithic archaeological culture which existed in large areas of what is now Maharashtra state in Western India, and also reached north into the Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. It is named after the type site of Jorwe.
Statement 2 is correct: Of the 200 jorwe sites discovered so far, the largest is Daimabad in the Godavari valley. It is about 20 hectares in extent which could contain around 4000 people.
Thus, Option C is correct.
With reference to the Indian Embroidery, consider the following pairs:
1. Phulkari – Punjab
2. Sujni- Bihar
3. Kantha- Odisha
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Explanation
• Punjab is famed for its traditional embroidery called phulkari flowering work. Using threads in brilliant colours like flaming pinks oranges, mustard yellows and creams, the reverse satin stitch is done on a brick-red khadi cloth. An allover embroidered shawl (dupatta) is called a bagh, literally resembling a garden of flowers.
• Sujni, from Bihar, is a form of quilted embroidery with mainly narrative themes.
• Kantha, embroidery from Bengal, is made of thousands of fine stitches, giving the fabric a puckered quilted look. In Bangladesh and India kantha was used to make quilts and coverlets. Old sarees were folded together and embroidered with coloured threads pulled from saree borders. Now kantha embroiderers make sarees and dupattas for the metro market.
Thus, option A is Correct.
Explanation
• Punjab is famed for its traditional embroidery called phulkari flowering work. Using threads in brilliant colours like flaming pinks oranges, mustard yellows and creams, the reverse satin stitch is done on a brick-red khadi cloth. An allover embroidered shawl (dupatta) is called a bagh, literally resembling a garden of flowers.
• Sujni, from Bihar, is a form of quilted embroidery with mainly narrative themes.
• Kantha, embroidery from Bengal, is made of thousands of fine stitches, giving the fabric a puckered quilted look. In Bangladesh and India kantha was used to make quilts and coverlets. Old sarees were folded together and embroidered with coloured threads pulled from saree borders. Now kantha embroiderers make sarees and dupattas for the metro market.
Thus, option A is Correct.
Explanation
• Punjab is famed for its traditional embroidery called phulkari flowering work. Using threads in brilliant colours like flaming pinks oranges, mustard yellows and creams, the reverse satin stitch is done on a brick-red khadi cloth. An allover embroidered shawl (dupatta) is called a bagh, literally resembling a garden of flowers.
• Sujni, from Bihar, is a form of quilted embroidery with mainly narrative themes.
• Kantha, embroidery from Bengal, is made of thousands of fine stitches, giving the fabric a puckered quilted look. In Bangladesh and India kantha was used to make quilts and coverlets. Old sarees were folded together and embroidered with coloured threads pulled from saree borders. Now kantha embroiderers make sarees and dupattas for the metro market.
Thus, option A is Correct.
Pietra dura is best related to which of the Following?
Explanation
Pietra dura is decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Pietra dura is decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Pietra dura is decorating the walls with floral designs made of semi-precious stones.
Thus, option D is correct.
Karkhanas for painting were established by Which Mughal ruler?
Explanation
Jahangir – Sent Bisan Das to Persia in 1613 on a diplomatic mission
Akbar – Established royal Karkhana for painting
Aurangzeb – was not much interested in art and architecture.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
Jahangir – Sent Bisan Das to Persia in 1613 on a diplomatic mission
Akbar – Established royal Karkhana for painting
Aurangzeb – was not much interested in art and architecture.
Thus, option B is correct.
Explanation
Jahangir – Sent Bisan Das to Persia in 1613 on a diplomatic mission
Akbar – Established royal Karkhana for painting
Aurangzeb – was not much interested in art and architecture.
Thus, option B is correct.
The dual system of governance in Bengal was enforced by which of the following?
Explanation
The system of Dual Government was introduced in Bengal by Robert Clive of British East India Company. It lasted from 1765 to 1772. Under this system, the administration of Bengal was divided into Nizamat and Diwani. The Diwani was carried out by the company and the Nizamat by the Nizam.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
The system of Dual Government was introduced in Bengal by Robert Clive of British East India Company. It lasted from 1765 to 1772. Under this system, the administration of Bengal was divided into Nizamat and Diwani. The Diwani was carried out by the company and the Nizamat by the Nizam.
Thus, option C is correct.
Explanation
The system of Dual Government was introduced in Bengal by Robert Clive of British East India Company. It lasted from 1765 to 1772. Under this system, the administration of Bengal was divided into Nizamat and Diwani. The Diwani was carried out by the company and the Nizamat by the Nizam.
Thus, option C is correct.
Swaraj Party in 1923 was established by which of the following?
Explanation
The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party was formed on 1 January 1923 by C R Das and Motilal Nehru. The formation of the Swaraj Party came after various significant events like the withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the government of India act 1919 and 1923 elections.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party was formed on 1 January 1923 by C R Das and Motilal Nehru. The formation of the Swaraj Party came after various significant events like the withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the government of India act 1919 and 1923 elections.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Swarajya Party was formed on 1 January 1923 by C R Das and Motilal Nehru. The formation of the Swaraj Party came after various significant events like the withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the government of India act 1919 and 1923 elections.
Thus, option D is correct.
Who wrote the famous play, Neel Darpan in which oppression of indigo farmers is displayed?
Explanation
Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was essential to Nil Vidroha, better known as the Indigo Revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields to protest against exploitative farming under the British rule.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was essential to Nil Vidroha, better known as the Indigo Revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields to protest against exploitative farming under the British rule.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
Nil Darpan is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was essential to Nil Vidroha, better known as the Indigo Revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields to protest against exploitative farming under the British rule.
Thus, option D is correct.
Which of the following acts introduced separate electorate system in India?
Explanation
In India’s pre-independence era, when the Muslims in India demanded fair representation in power-sharing with the British government along with the Hindus in 1906, the British government provided for a separate electorate system for the Muslims in Indian Council Act, 1909.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
In India’s pre-independence era, when the Muslims in India demanded fair representation in power-sharing with the British government along with the Hindus in 1906, the British government provided for a separate electorate system for the Muslims in Indian Council Act, 1909.
Thus, option D is correct.
Explanation
In India’s pre-independence era, when the Muslims in India demanded fair representation in power-sharing with the British government along with the Hindus in 1906, the British government provided for a separate electorate system for the Muslims in Indian Council Act, 1909.
Thus, option D is correct.
Consider the following statements:
1. Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev Thapar threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly while protesting against the Public safety bill.
2. Batukeshwar Dutt achieved martyrdom after 63 days epic fast during a hunger strike in the jail.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Explanation
• Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929. They wanted to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill, which would have reduced civil liberties. The bomb did not harm anyone for it had been deliberately made harmless.
• As political prisoners they demanded an honourable and decent treatment. During the course of this hunger-strike, Jatin Das, a frail young man, achieved martyrdom after a 63 days epic fast. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed on 23 March 1931, despite popular protest.
Thus, Option D is correct.
Explanation
• Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929. They wanted to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill, which would have reduced civil liberties. The bomb did not harm anyone for it had been deliberately made harmless.
• As political prisoners they demanded an honourable and decent treatment. During the course of this hunger-strike, Jatin Das, a frail young man, achieved martyrdom after a 63 days epic fast. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed on 23 March 1931, despite popular protest.
Thus, Option D is correct.
Explanation
• Bhagat Singh and B.K. Dutt threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly on 8 April 1929. They wanted to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill, which would have reduced civil liberties. The bomb did not harm anyone for it had been deliberately made harmless.
• As political prisoners they demanded an honourable and decent treatment. During the course of this hunger-strike, Jatin Das, a frail young man, achieved martyrdom after a 63 days epic fast. Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed on 23 March 1931, despite popular protest.
Thus, Option D is correct.
On heating, the resistance of a semiconductor will
Explanation
When the temperature is raised, some of the covalent bonds in the semiconductor break due to the thermal energy supplied. The breaking of the bond set those electrons free which are engaged in the formation of these bonds. These free electrons can constitute a tiny electric current if potential difference is applied across the semiconductor. Hence the resistance decreases with the rise in temperature.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
When the temperature is raised, some of the covalent bonds in the semiconductor break due to the thermal energy supplied. The breaking of the bond set those electrons free which are engaged in the formation of these bonds. These free electrons can constitute a tiny electric current if potential difference is applied across the semiconductor. Hence the resistance decreases with the rise in temperature.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
When the temperature is raised, some of the covalent bonds in the semiconductor break due to the thermal energy supplied. The breaking of the bond set those electrons free which are engaged in the formation of these bonds. These free electrons can constitute a tiny electric current if potential difference is applied across the semiconductor. Hence the resistance decreases with the rise in temperature.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Which one of the following is commonly used for pulp bleaching in the paper industry?
Explanation
Bleaching of wood pulp is the chemical processing carried out to decrease the color of the pulp, so that it becomes whiter. Alkaline hydrogen peroxide is the most commonly used bleaching agent for mechanical pulp. It selectively oxidizes non-aromatic conjugated groups responsible for absorbing visible light. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is catalyzed by transition metals.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Explanation
Bleaching of wood pulp is the chemical processing carried out to decrease the color of the pulp, so that it becomes whiter. Alkaline hydrogen peroxide is the most commonly used bleaching agent for mechanical pulp. It selectively oxidizes non-aromatic conjugated groups responsible for absorbing visible light. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is catalyzed by transition metals.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Explanation
Bleaching of wood pulp is the chemical processing carried out to decrease the color of the pulp, so that it becomes whiter. Alkaline hydrogen peroxide is the most commonly used bleaching agent for mechanical pulp. It selectively oxidizes non-aromatic conjugated groups responsible for absorbing visible light. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide is catalyzed by transition metals.
Thus, Option B is correct.
Which of the following does not change when light travels from one medium to another?
Explanation
Light does not change frequency when it’s move one medium to another medium.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
Light does not change frequency when it’s move one medium to another medium.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
Light does not change frequency when it’s move one medium to another medium.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Commercial nitric acid is coloured because it contains dissolved –
Explanation
Commercial nitric acid has a brown colour due to dissolved NO2. The procedure of bubbling dry air through warm commercial nitric acid, is to drive away the dissolved nitrogen dioxide so that the acid becomes colourless.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
Commercial nitric acid has a brown colour due to dissolved NO2. The procedure of bubbling dry air through warm commercial nitric acid, is to drive away the dissolved nitrogen dioxide so that the acid becomes colourless.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Explanation
Commercial nitric acid has a brown colour due to dissolved NO2. The procedure of bubbling dry air through warm commercial nitric acid, is to drive away the dissolved nitrogen dioxide so that the acid becomes colourless.
Thus, Option A is correct.
Which of the following vitamin is effective in blood clotting?
Explanation
Commercial nitric acid has a brown colour due to dissolved NO2. The procedure of bubbling dry air through warm commercial nitric acid, is to drive away the dissolved nitrogen dioxide so that the acid becomes colourless.
Thus, Option D is correct.
Explanation
Commercial nitric acid has a brown colour due to dissolved NO2. The procedure of bubbling dry air through warm commercial nitric acid, is to drive away the dissolved nitrogen dioxide so that the acid becomes colourless.
Thus, Option D is correct.
Explanation
Commercial nitric acid has a brown colour due to dissolved NO2. The procedure of bubbling dry air through warm commercial nitric acid, is to drive away the dissolved nitrogen dioxide so that the acid becomes colourless.
Thus, Option D is correct.
Consider the following pairs:
(Types of Interaction): (Effects of interaction)
1. Parasitism: Adversely affects both species
2. Mutualism: Interaction is favourable to both species
3. Amensalism: one species is inhibited while the other species is unaffected
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Explanation
● Amensalism: one species is inhibited while the other species is unaffected
● Parasitism: Beneficial to one species (parasite) and harmful to the other species (host).
● Competition: Adversely affects both species
● Mutualism: Interaction is favourable to both species
● Commensalism: One species (the commensal) benefits, while the other species (the host) is neither harmed nor inhibited
● Predation: Predator–prey relationship: one species (predator) benefits while the second species (prey) is harmed and inhibited.
Thus option B is correct.
Explanation
● Amensalism: one species is inhibited while the other species is unaffected
● Parasitism: Beneficial to one species (parasite) and harmful to the other species (host).
● Competition: Adversely affects both species
● Mutualism: Interaction is favourable to both species
● Commensalism: One species (the commensal) benefits, while the other species (the host) is neither harmed nor inhibited
● Predation: Predator–prey relationship: one species (predator) benefits while the second species (prey) is harmed and inhibited.
Thus option B is correct.
Explanation
● Amensalism: one species is inhibited while the other species is unaffected
● Parasitism: Beneficial to one species (parasite) and harmful to the other species (host).
● Competition: Adversely affects both species
● Mutualism: Interaction is favourable to both species
● Commensalism: One species (the commensal) benefits, while the other species (the host) is neither harmed nor inhibited
● Predation: Predator–prey relationship: one species (predator) benefits while the second species (prey) is harmed and inhibited.
Thus option B is correct.
Recently, India’s first solar-powered Miniature Train is launched in which of the following state?
Explanation
Kerala’s Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan launched the country’s first solar energy driven miniature train. This endeavour is part of a string of projects worth Rs. 60 crore to elevate the facilities at the tourist village to international standards.
Thus option A is correct.
Explanation
Kerala’s Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan launched the country’s first solar energy driven miniature train. This endeavour is part of a string of projects worth Rs. 60 crore to elevate the facilities at the tourist village to international standards.
Thus option A is correct.
Explanation
Kerala’s Chief Minister Pinarayi Vijayan launched the country’s first solar energy driven miniature train. This endeavour is part of a string of projects worth Rs. 60 crore to elevate the facilities at the tourist village to international standards.
Thus option A is correct.
The Sukhjit mega food park, was recently inaugurated by Union Minister for Food Processing Industries, in which district of Punjab?
Explanation
Union Minister for Food Processing Industries, Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Rural Development and Panchayati Raj today virtually inaugurated Mega Food Park (MFP) at Phagwara in Kapurthala district of Punjab. Shri Tomar said that Punjab and Haryana have significant role in development of agriculture sector of India.
Thus option B is correct.
Explanation
Union Minister for Food Processing Industries, Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Rural Development and Panchayati Raj today virtually inaugurated Mega Food Park (MFP) at Phagwara in Kapurthala district of Punjab. Shri Tomar said that Punjab and Haryana have significant role in development of agriculture sector of India.
Thus option B is correct.
Explanation
Union Minister for Food Processing Industries, Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Rural Development and Panchayati Raj today virtually inaugurated Mega Food Park (MFP) at Phagwara in Kapurthala district of Punjab. Shri Tomar said that Punjab and Haryana have significant role in development of agriculture sector of India.
Thus option B is correct.
Which of the following High Court has given verdict that marriage between first cousins is illegal?
Explanation
Punjab and Haryana High Court rules after youth, who was in a live-in relationship with a minor girl who was his relative, files for anticipatory bail. The Punjab and Haryana High Court has stated that marriage between first cousins is illegal.
Thus option D is correct.
Explanation
Punjab and Haryana High Court rules after youth, who was in a live-in relationship with a minor girl who was his relative, files for anticipatory bail. The Punjab and Haryana High Court has stated that marriage between first cousins is illegal.
Thus option D is correct.
Explanation
Punjab and Haryana High Court rules after youth, who was in a live-in relationship with a minor girl who was his relative, files for anticipatory bail. The Punjab and Haryana High Court has stated that marriage between first cousins is illegal.
Thus option D is correct.
2021 Booker Prize has won by Damon Galgut for his which of the following novel?
Explanation
Damon Galgut has won the Booker Prize for The Promise.
Thus option C is correct.
Explanation
Damon Galgut has won the Booker Prize for The Promise.
Thus option C is correct.
Explanation
Damon Galgut has won the Booker Prize for The Promise.
Thus option C is correct.
Which Country assumed the role of Chairman of the International Labour Organziation’s Governing Body for the period of 2021-2022?
Explanation
Sweden assumed the role of chair of the International Labour Organisation’s governing body for the period of 2021-2022. It succeded India. Ambassador Anna Jardfelt Melvin of Sweden was elected as Chairperson and Renate Hornung-Draus of Germany as Employer Vice-Chairperson.
Thus option A is correct.
Explanation
Sweden assumed the role of chair of the International Labour Organisation’s governing body for the period of 2021-2022. It succeded India. Ambassador Anna Jardfelt Melvin of Sweden was elected as Chairperson and Renate Hornung-Draus of Germany as Employer Vice-Chairperson.
Thus option A is correct.
Explanation
Sweden assumed the role of chair of the International Labour Organisation’s governing body for the period of 2021-2022. It succeded India. Ambassador Anna Jardfelt Melvin of Sweden was elected as Chairperson and Renate Hornung-Draus of Germany as Employer Vice-Chairperson.
Thus option A is correct.
Indian region is composed of which of the following realm?
Explanation
The Indian region is composed of two realms. They are:
1. The Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm and
2. The rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm.
Thus Option D is Correct.
Explanation
The Indian region is composed of two realms. They are:
1. The Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm and
2. The rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm.
Thus Option D is Correct.
Explanation
The Indian region is composed of two realms. They are:
1. The Himalayan region represented by Palearctic Realm and
2. The rest of the sub-continent represented by Malayan Realm.
Thus Option D is Correct.
Which one of the following districts of India is the largest in terms of Geographical area?
Explanation
Kutch district of Gujarat is the largest district of India
Thus Option C is Correct.
Explanation
Kutch district of Gujarat is the largest district of India
Thus Option C is Correct.
Explanation
Kutch district of Gujarat is the largest district of India
Thus Option C is Correct.
Galwan Valley is located in which of the following State or U.T?
Explanation
The valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LAC, and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Explanation
The valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LAC, and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Explanation
The valley refers to the land that sits between steep mountains that buffet the Galwan River. The river has its source in Aksai Chin, on China’s side of the LAC, and it flows from the east to Ladakh, where it meets the Shyok river on India’s side of the LAC.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Which of the following tiger reserve has highest number of tigers in the country?
Explanation
According to the population estimation of tigers in reserves for 2018-19, Corbett has 231 tigers followed by Nagarhole and Bandipore reserves in Karnataka with 127 and 126 tigers respectively.
Assam’s Kaziranga and Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh recorded 104 tigers each, the report said.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Explanation
According to the population estimation of tigers in reserves for 2018-19, Corbett has 231 tigers followed by Nagarhole and Bandipore reserves in Karnataka with 127 and 126 tigers respectively.
Assam’s Kaziranga and Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh recorded 104 tigers each, the report said.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Explanation
According to the population estimation of tigers in reserves for 2018-19, Corbett has 231 tigers followed by Nagarhole and Bandipore reserves in Karnataka with 127 and 126 tigers respectively.
Assam’s Kaziranga and Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh recorded 104 tigers each, the report said.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Faroe Island is a part of which of the following countries?
Explanation
The Faroe Islands have been a self-governing part of the Kingdom of Denmark since 1948, controlling most areas apart from military defence, policing, justice, currency, and foreign affairs.
Thus Option C is Correct.
Explanation
The Faroe Islands have been a self-governing part of the Kingdom of Denmark since 1948, controlling most areas apart from military defence, policing, justice, currency, and foreign affairs.
Thus Option C is Correct.
Explanation
The Faroe Islands have been a self-governing part of the Kingdom of Denmark since 1948, controlling most areas apart from military defence, policing, justice, currency, and foreign affairs.
Thus Option C is Correct.
Legumes are highly nutritious because they are rich in
Explanation
Legumes are high in protein and fiber.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Explanation
Legumes are high in protein and fiber.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Explanation
Legumes are high in protein and fiber.
Thus Option B is Correct.
Which one of the following causes the Chikungunia disease?
Explanation
Caused by a viral infection, Chikungunya is among some of the commonly occurring diseases during the monsoon season. This disease is caused in humans when the mosquitos carrying the Chikungunya virus bite them. The Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitos are the ones which carry the virus.
Thus Option D is Correct.
Explanation
Caused by a viral infection, Chikungunya is among some of the commonly occurring diseases during the monsoon season. This disease is caused in humans when the mosquitos carrying the Chikungunya virus bite them. The Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitos are the ones which carry the virus.
Thus Option D is Correct.
Explanation
Caused by a viral infection, Chikungunya is among some of the commonly occurring diseases during the monsoon season. This disease is caused in humans when the mosquitos carrying the Chikungunya virus bite them. The Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus mosquitos are the ones which carry the virus.
Thus Option D is Correct.